"Jehovah" 50 or 237 places in the New Testament? (Examining Countess' list)

As a part of his attack upon the NWT's `dishonest' use of "Jehovah" in the NT, Mr. Countess uses a listNWT translators, editors, and publishers are hypocritically dishonest! He claims that there are only 50 places in the NT where the inspired writer has quoted OT scriptures which actually use "Jehovah." Therefore, he tells us there should be a maximum of 50 places where the NWT has `honestly' changed "Lord" or "God" in the NT to "Jehovah" (to match the original OT quote)! And yet the NWT has used "Jehovah" in 237 places in the NT! Even worse, only 39 of them (out of a possible 50) are places where the NT actually quotes * an OT scripture using "Jehovah" (according to Mr. Countess)! Therefore, according to this trinitarian "scholar" and Presbyterian minister, the NWT has dishonestly and hypocritically used "Jehovah" in 198 out of the 237 instances (about 85% of the time)! {Please see my JHVHNT study} Below is the first part of Table IV (p. 104) which Mr. Countess uses in support of his extremely serious charges:
(Table IV, p. 104) to "prove" that the


TABLE IV

"Jehovah's" in the Main Text of NWT



Book.....YHWH in OT text...NWT based on YHWH..not based on YHWH

Matthew..........8.....................7 ............................. 11

Mark.............. 2 ................... 2.................................7

Luke............... 2................... 2............................... 34

John............... 2................... 1................................. 4

Etc.



[In other words, Countess is claiming that there are only 8 places in Matthew which quote or refer to an OT use of YHWH ('Jehovah'). Then he claims that the NWT uses 18 "Jehovahs" in the Book of Matthew. Of those 18, he claims that only 7 of them are actually based on a passage in the OT which uses YHWH. Then he claims that the 11 other "Jehovahs" in the Book of Matthew in the NWT are NOT based on a use of YHWH in the OT!!]

Why don't we actually examine the accuracy of this table by Mr. Countess? That is the only way that one can truly determine who is being dishonest!

For example, notice that in his table he claims that John only quoted twice from the OT where it originally used "Jehovah," whereas the NWT has used "Jehovah" 5 times in the Gospel of John. Furthermore, of those 5 times, he claims, only one is actually based on an OT use of "Jehovah"! In other words, the NWT is dishonest in 4 of its 5 uses of "Jehovah" in the Gospel of John because they are not based on an OT use of "Jehovah"!

We have seen that even respected trinitarian scholars disagree as to whether certain NT scriptures are quotes (or clear, direct references) to OT scriptures or not. Sometimes the evidence is simply not strong enough to make it certain. However, for a Bible to disagree with all other Bibles and scholars in 80% (4 out of 5) of such cases might justify an accusation of dishonesty.

The five uses of "Jehovah" in John by the NWT are Jn 1:23; 6:45; 12:13; and 12:38 (twice). Is it really true, as Countess claims, that only one of these uses a quote from the OT where "Jehovah" was originally used?

(1) ALL of the trinitarian Bible translations I used above to determine what was a quote from the OT and what was not (NKJV; RSV; NRSV; NASB; NIV; REB; NAB (1970); NAB (1991); JB; NJB; MLB; Moffatt; and Beck) show Jn 1:23 to be a quote from the OT: Is. 40:3 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV actually uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(2) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Jn 6:45 to be a quote from the OT: Is. 54:13 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts).

(3) Six of those same trinitarian Bibles (NKJV; NASB; JB; NJB; Moffatt; and Beck) show Jn 12:13 to be a quote from the OT: Ps. 118:26 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(4) & (5) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Jn 12:38 to be a quote from the OT: Is. 53:1 (which does use "Jehovah" once in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword `LORD' here (once only, however) which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original! The only possible accusation of "dishonesty" here could be the fact that the NWT has rendered both `Lord's in Jn 12:38 as "Jehovah" whereas the original being quoted uses only one "Jehovah." However, the context certainly suggests that the first "Lord" is directed to Jehovah also. And a number of Hebrew New Testament translations have rendered both `Lord's at Jn 12:38 as "Jehovah." This includes the two I have in my possession which are translated by respected trinitarians: (1) by the United Bible Societies, 1983 printing; and (2) Delitzsch's Hebrew New Testament, The Trinitarian Bible Society, 1981 printing.

So just how is the NWT being "dishonest" by using "Jehovah" 5 times in these 4 verses in the Gospel of John where John is quoting from the OT? And how honest is Mr. Countess when he tells us that only one use of "Jehovah" in the Gospel of John in the NWT is supported by a quote from the OT? Exactly who is being dishonest?

Another good example from Mr. Countess' table is that of Mark.

In Mark, he claims, there are only two times that Mark quoted from the OT where "Jehovah" was used in the original OT manuscripts. But there are 9 times in Mark that the NWT has used "Jehovah." Therefore, according to Countess, the NWT has used the Divine Name in Mark "dishonestly" 7 times!
All of the 9 uses of "Jehovah" in Mark by the NWT are: Mark 1:3; 5:19; 11:9; 12:11; 12:29 (twice); 12:30; 12:36; and 13:20. Is it really true that only two of these use a quote from the OT where "Jehovah" was originally used?

(1) ALL of the 13 trinitarian Bible translations I used above to determine what is considered a quote from the OT and what is not show Mk 1:3 to be a quote from Isaiah 40:3 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts).

(2) NONE of those same trinitarian Bibles indicates Mk 5:19 to be a quote from the OT. However, the context makes the connection to Jehovah probable. In addition, 7 Hebrew New Testament translations do use "Jehovah" at Mk 5:19. This includes the two respected trinitarian Hebrew New Testaments I have: Delitzsch's and the UBS'. It certainly does not seem dishonest for "Jehovah" to be used here, but it apparently is not a quote from the OT.

(3) SIX of those same trinitarian Bibles (NKJV; NASB; JB; NJB; Moffatt; and Beck) show Mk 11:9 to be a quote from Ps. 118:26 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original! The NIVSB also tells us in a footnote for Mk 11:9, "A quotation of Ps. 118:26." Also 14 Hebrew New Testaments use "Jehovah" at Mk 11:9. This includes the two modern, respected trinitarian Hebrew New Testaments I have in my possession.

(4) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Mk 12:11 to be a quote from Ps. 118:23 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(5) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Mk 12:29 ("Hear, O Israel, the Lord God....") to be a quote from the OT: Deut. 6:4 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(6) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Mk 12:29 (last part of verse: "...the Lord is one.") to be a quote from the OT: Deut. 6:4 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(7) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Mk 12:30 to be a quote from Deut. 6:5 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(8) ALL of those same trinitarian Bibles show Mk 12:36 to be a quote from Ps. 110:1 (which does use "Jehovah" in the original OT manuscripts). And NKJV again uses its keyword (`LORD') here which indicates "Jehovah" was in the original!

(9) NONE of those same trinitarian Bibles shows Mk 13:20 to be a quote from the OT. However, as in Mk 5:19 above, the context makes the connection probable. In addition there are 10 Hebrew New Testament translations which use "Jehovah" here in Mk 13:20. This includes the 2 respected trinitarian translations I have in my possession. It certainly does not seem dishonest for "Jehovah" to be used here, although it does not appear to be a quote from the OT.

It is very obvious that at least 7 of the 9 uses of "Jehovah" in Mark by the NWT are from quotes by Mark of the OT which also used "Jehovah"!

So exactly who is being dishonest? Are there really only 2 places in Mark where an OT passage using "Jehovah" is being quoted or referred to by Mark? Mr. Countess insists there are!

Everyone else says there are at least 7! And some other respected trinitarian sources agree that "Jehovah" is also an appropriate rendering in the two other places the NWT uses "Jehovah" in the Gospel of Mark!

So, honestly, exactly who is being dishonest?

-----------------------------------------------
Note

* Although it was the most certain determinant, the NWT translators did not restrict themselves entirely to exact quotes of specific OT verses when they restored the Divine Name to the NT. They admitted that they took into consideration the context of the NT itself (especially if it included a common description or popular phrase frequently found also in the OT which normally included God's personal name) whether or not to restore the name `Jehovah.' But it was extremely rare that there weren't Hebrew translations of the NT (usually by trinitarian translators) which had used "Jehovah" at that same place and, therefore, reinforced their decision. These Hebrew translations are listed in the 1951 ed. of the NWT on pp. 30-33 and 1984 NWT Reference Bible on pp. 9-10.

For more, see:

"Jehovah" in The New Testament - Links to Information (Defend Jehovah's Witnesses)

Should the Name Jehovah Appear in the New Testament? (w08 8/1 pp. 18-23; Watchtower Online Library)

God's Name and the New Testament (Search Results From the Watchtower Online Library)

The Divine Name in the Hebrew Scriptures Heb., יהוה (YHWH) (Watchtower Online Library)

"Jehovah" in The New Testament (Search For Bible Truths)

NWT - Criticism by Zondervan's So Many Versions? - "Jehovah" in the New Testament (Defending the NWT)

On the Form of the Divine Name "Jehovah" (IN Defense of the NWT)

Should God's name “Jehovah" appear in the New Testament? (Search For Bible Truths)

YHWH in the New Testament (Jehovah's Witnesses United)