Adding "Other" (Col. 1:16-20; Acts 10:36; Rom. 8:32; Phil. 2:9)

The following examines another one of Bowman's attacks on the NWT:

Adding Other

[After the usual trinitarian criticism of the NWT's rendering of Col. 1:16-20 (with `[other]' added) - see the NWT study paper, `Martin's Criticism' - he continues:]

...the NWT does this same thing in several other passages as well (Acts 10:36; Rom.
8:32; Phil. 2:9). In Romans 8:32, the word other is not even placed in brackets, contrary to the work's stated practice. - p. 66.

(1) At Acts 10:36, which literally says, "He sent the word to the sons of Israel declaring good news of peace through Jesus Christ; this [one] is lord of all," we see that a number of respected trinitarian scholars interpret this as meaning "Jesus is lord of all [but not of the Father]." In other words "Jesus is lord of all others."

This is shown in the NIVSB by the footnote which says: "Lord of all. Lord of both Jew and Gentile." This interpretation by these respected trinitarian scholars clearly shows that Jesus is being called the Lord of all humans, not Lord of God himself (and not even necessarily Lord of the angels although other scriptures show that he has this lordship also) - - but Lord of all others!

The very trinitarian TEV by the American Bible Society renders Acts 10:36-
"... through Jesus Christ, who is Lord of all men." - third edition, 1971.

Again it is clear what these trinitarian translators believe this scripture is saying: Jesus is the Lord (not of God, nor even the angels as far as this scripture reveals), but of men. Since it is translated as excluding God himself by these trinitarian scholars, it is just as acceptable to render it as "Lord of all [others]" which would also exclude God himself, (but could include all others, including the angels).

Also the popular translation by trinitarian J. B. Phillips translates this as -
"... through Jesus Christ - he is the Lord of us all." - 1960.

This also includes all men, but excludes God (and even his angels, apparently). So we find once again that the NWT should certainly not be condemned for also excluding God (alone) here by rendering Acts 10:36 as "Lord of all [others]."

The very trinitarian Living Bible (LB) renders this verse -
"through Jesus the Messiah, who is lord of all creation." - Tyndale House Publ., 1971.

This is a paraphrase Bible, but nevertheless it shows what these trinitarian translators and scholars believe was actually intended by the original wording. And that is that God was excluded from the category of those over whom Jesus is Lord! (Although angels would also be included with this wording.) The meaning, therefore, is essentially the same as the NWT's!

And, finally, how does Bowman-praised Dr. Goodspeed render it?

"... through Jesus Christ. He is Lord of us all." - AT, University of Chicago Press, 1975 ed.

(2) At Rom. 8:32 we also find 'other' or its equivalent (e.g., else) added in NRSV; REB; NAB (`91); CBW; and LB. (And there are no italics or brackets in these respected trinitarian translations! - The Amplified Bible adds 'other' with brackets, however.)

(3) And at Phil. 2:9 in Dr. Goodspeed's AT, we find the word `others' (without italics or brackets) has been honestly added to the text: "given him the name above all others" (Also, JB; NJB; NAB [`70]; CBW; GNB; TEV; CEV; LB; ETRV; NLV; GodsWord; ISV NT; Weymouth; and Beck [NT].)

How is it, then, that Dr. Goodspeed is praised by Bowman (and others) as "without question one of America's finest Greek scholars" while the NWT is to be condemned for its translation which is essentially the same as Dr. Goodspeed's (and other trinitarian translators and scholars)??

Also see:
Colossians 1:15 in the New World Translation (INDNWT)

Acts 10:36 'others' (INDNWT)
Does the New World Translation Add Words to Colossians 1:16, 17? (Bible Translation and Study)

Why does the New World Translation use the word "other" at Col. 1:16? (SFBT)

NWT - "Other" at Col. 1:16 (DNWT)